Modern Pascal

The whole of faith consists in Jesus Christ and Adam and the whole of morality in concupiscence and grace. # 226 (p. 72)

Perpetuity. This religion consists in believing that man has fallen from a state of glory and communion with God into a state of gloom, penitence and estrangement from God, but that after this life we shall be restored by a promised Messiah, and it has always existed on earth. # 281 (p. 90)

The first sentence concerned me. We now, as Christians, accept that the story of Adam and Eve is a figurative tale intended to explain why mankind isn't perfect. However, I feel that Pascal's proofs of Christianity are so much tidier because he has a firm belief that the world is 6,000 years old and that Adam was a flesh and blood individual. Once we start saying Adam and Eve is figurative, the Flood is figurative, Sodom and Gomorrah are figurative, all the way down the line, I feel we need to ask "Then why should the prophecies be taken literally?" and Pascal also claims that "The most weighty proofs of Jesus are the prophecies (# 335). If Pascal were to hear the modern take that we hold (more or less) the entire Old Testament figuratively, would he still hold onto his proof by prophecy?

I take his second quote to be Pascal's "Thesis of Christianity." I feel that it boils all the elements of his theology into its base components (it's like a dorm party that way). This sentence seems equally legitimate whether or not Adam or Noah were literal human beings - he even puts the language more passively. Does this Pensee hold up if the same critical interpretation of the Bible is applied to it?