Wednesday, March 18, 2009

Rousseau Pt. II

On the contrary, nothing is so gentle as man in his primitive state, when, placed by nature at an equal distance from the stupidity of brutes and the fatal enlightenment of civil man, and limited equally by instinct and reason to protecting himself from the harm that threatens him, he is restrained by natural pity from needlessly harming anyone himself, even if he has been harmed. For according to the axiom of the wise Locke, where there is no property, there is no injury.


Rousseau here claims that the original cause for violence was the introduction of property, and that beforehand, man was tranquil and peaceful to his fellow man. However, if one looks at the state of nature of other non-human animals, it seems that violence is a natural part of most of their lives. Does Rousseau assume something that seems not to be true? Or is he referring to the middle stage in his idea of human development? If so, did the forming of communities cause one to claim property, or did the claiming of property begin the communal process?

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